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    TFL lesson 3

    I'm sorry but I'm having trouble understanding the translation exercise on p. 24.
    "Transport the cows to town." is translated, "Vehe ad oppidum vaccas."
    With cows as the direct object in the accusative, why wouldn't town be an indirect object in the dative? Why are both accusative?
    Thanks so much and sorry to bother you!
    Angela
    2018/2019
    Dd 12: MP 7A and First Form Greek
    Ds 10: MP 5M
    Ds 5: MP K

    #2
    Re: TFL lesson 3

    Originally posted by Angela View Post
    I'm sorry but I'm having trouble understanding the translation exercise on p. 24.
    "Transport the cows to town." is translated, "Vehe ad oppidum vaccas."
    With cows as the direct object in the accusative, why wouldn't town be an indirect object in the dative? Why are both accusative?
    Thanks so much and sorry to bother you!
    Angela
    Not a bother at all! "Oppidum" is accusative because it is the object of the preposition "ad," which shows motion towards. I checked the only Latin dictionary I have access to at home, and couldn't find an example of the dative of indirect object being used with "veho." The ablative, which often looks like the dative, is sometimes used for the means of travel, so I think "ad" is clearer. I can research this further on Monday, though. Good question!
    Michael
    Memoria Press

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      #3
      Re: TFL lesson 3

      Ok, so it sounds like if it is a prepositional phrase, you will use the ablative or accusative case that the preposition governs. So an indirect object (dative) will never be the object of a preposition, is that correct?
      Like, "I'm giving you the shoes." you= IO (dative) But, "I'm giving the shoes to you." you=object of preposition (accusative)
      Sorry those examples are in English, but I'm trying to understand the difference for use in Latin. Thanks!
      2018/2019
      Dd 12: MP 7A and First Form Greek
      Ds 10: MP 5M
      Ds 5: MP K

      Comment


        #4
        Re: TFL lesson 3

        Originally posted by Angela View Post
        Ok, so it sounds like if it is a prepositional phrase, you will use the ablative or accusative case that the preposition governs. So an indirect object (dative) will never be the object of a preposition, is that correct?
        Like, "I'm giving you the shoes." you= IO (dative) But, "I'm giving the shoes to you." you=object of preposition (accusative)
        Sorry those examples are in English, but I'm trying to understand the difference for use in Latin. Thanks!
        Very close! In English, we can convey an indirect object by word order ("give you the shoes") or by a prepositional phrase ("give the shoes to you"). When translating, we want to translate the idea of the sentence. So, when translating an indirect object, no matter how it's written in English, we use the dative case in Latin.

        Note that an indirect object "tells to whom or for whom the action of the verb is done" (EGR #71). In the sentence "Transport the cows to town," the town is the location where the cows are being transported. The idea is not that of an indirect object, but of motion towards. Since we're translating ideas, we use the preposition "ad" which shows motion and takes the accusative: "ad oppida."

        Does that make more sense? I'm sorry my initial explanation wasn't clear enough!
        Michael
        Memoria Press

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