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Question about "Protagora's Dilemma" in The Classical Teacher

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    Question about "Protagora's Dilemma" in The Classical Teacher

    I can't tell you how much we all enjoyed this article! It's a great story in itself. I have one question, though, as someone knowing nothing (yet!) of formal logic. Why is it necessary, in the counter-dilemma, to switch P and R? Why wouldn't the argument work by still keeping P as the first part of the counter-dilemma?

    But how did it end?? Personally, I think Protagoras still has the stronger argument: Euathlus's case seems to rest on his choosing when he will obey the judge and when not. This is actually very interesting: is a private, pre-existing agreement stronger than a court decision? Morally, but not legally? Only when it's to my advantage? Good things to think about.

    Thank you for putting up with my ignorance!
    DS (14)
    DD (13)
    DS (6)

    #2
    Mrs. Bee,

    So sorry for not responding sooner. As long as you negate the two terms, you are fine. The switching is more a rhetorical device making the opposition more pronounced to allow you to see the opposition better.

    I'm glad you liked the article.

    Mr. Cothran

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      #3
      Thank you for your answer, Mr. Cothran.
      DS (14)
      DD (13)
      DS (6)

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